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(Download) IAS, IFos Preliminary (CSAT) Paper-2 (APTITUDE) 2013

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IAS Preliminary (CSAT) Exam, 2013

Download Actual Paper of the IAS PRE Exam, held on

26 May 2013 CSAT Paper-2 (Aptitude)

File Type: PDF File
File Size: 3-5 MB
Marks: 200
Duration: 2 Hours
Date of Exam: 26-05-2-13
Answer Keys: will be uploaded soon.

Questions Asked from Below Topics: 

  • English Comprehension
  • Interpersonal skills including communication skills;
  • Logical reasoning and analytical ability
  • Decision-making and problemsolving
  • General mental ability
  • Basic numeracy (Class-10 level), Data interpretation
  • English Language Comprehension skills (Class-10 level).

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Printed Study Material for UPSC PRELIMS EXAM

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Study Kit : UPSC - IAS PRE (GS+CSAT) Solved Papers & Test Series  

Printed Study Material for IAS (UPSC) General Studies PRE Cum MAINS  

 

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(डाउनलोड "Download") यूपीएससी आईएएस (प्री) सामान्य अध्ययन परीक्षा पेपर UPSC IAS (Pre.) General Studies Exam Paper - 2015 (Paper - 1) "held on 07-08-2015"

IAS EXAM



(डाउनलोड "Download") यूपीएससी आईएएस (प्री) सामान्य अध्ययन परीक्षा पेपर UPSC IAS (Pre.) General Studies Exam Paper - 2015 (Paper - 1)

"held on 07-08-2015"



परीक्षा का नाम: आईएएस (प्री)

विषय: सामान्य अध्ययन (पेपर -1) General Studies (GS) Paper -1

साल Year: 2015

टेस्ट बुकलेट सीरीज: B

प्रश्न 1 . कैबिनेट मिशन के सन्दर्भ में ,निमन्लिखित में से कौन - सा /से कथन सही है / हैं?

1 . इसने एक संघीय सरकार के लिए सिफारिश की।
2 . इसने भारतीय न्यायलयों की शक्तियों का विस्तार किया।
3 . इसने ICS में और अधिक भारतीयों के लिए उपबन्ध किया।

नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।

(a) केवल 1
(b) 2 और 3
(c) 1 और 3
(d) कोई नहीं

प्रश्न 2 .निमन्लिखित नेशनल पार्कों में से किस एक की जलवायु उष्णकटिबंधीय से उपोष्ण, शीतोष्ण और आर्कटिक तक परिवर्तित होती है ?

(a) कंचनजंघा नेशनल पार्क
(b) नंदादेवी नेशनल पार्क
(c) नेवरा वैली नेशनल पार्क
(d) नामदफा नेशनल पार्क

प्रश्न 3. ऐम्नेस्टी इंटरनेशनल क्या है ?

(a) गृहयुद्धों के शरणार्थियों की मदद के लिए संयुक्त राष्ट्र का एक अभिकरण
(b) विश्वव्यापी मानव अधिकार आन्दोलन
(c) अति निर्धन लोगो ली मदद के लिए एक गैर - सरकारी स्वैच्छिक सगठन
(d) युद्ध से विनष्ट हुए क्षेत्रों में चिकित्सा आकस्मिकताओं को पूरा करने के लिए एक अन्तर - सरकारी अभिकरण

प्रश्न 4. भारत के कला और पुरातात्त्विक इतिहास के सन्दर्भ में, निम्नलिखित में से किस एक का सबसे पहले निर्माण किया गया था ?

(a) भुनेश्वर स्थित लिंगराज मंदिर
(b) धौली स्थित शैलकृत हाथी
(c) महाबलिपुरम स्थित शैलकृत स्मारक
(d) उदयगिरि स्थिल वराह मूर्ति

प्रश्न 5. भारतीय इतिहास के सन्दर्भ में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन - सा /से सामंती व्यवस्था का /के अनिवार्य तत्व है/हैं ?

1. अत्यन्त सशक्त केन्द्रीय राजनीतिक सत्ता और अत्यन्त दुर्बल प्रान्तीय अथवा स्थानीय राजनीतिक सत्ता
2. भूमि के नियंत्रण तथा स्वामित्व पर आधारित प्रशासनिक संरचना का उदय
3. सामन्त तथा उसके अधिपति के बीच स्वामी-दास सम्बन्ध का बनना

नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।

(a) केवल 1 और 2
(b) केवल 2 और 3
(c) केवल 3
(d) 1, 2 और 3

प्रश्न 6. 'बायोकार्बन फंड इनिशिएटिव फॉर सस्टेनेबल फारेस्ट लैंडस्केप्स (BioCarbon Fund Intitiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes)' का प्रबन्धन निम्नलिखित में से कौन करता हैं ?

(a) एशिया विकास बैंक
(b) अन्तराष्ट्रीय मुद्रा कोष
(c) संयुक्त राष्ट्र पर्यावरण कार्यक्रम
(d) विश्व बैंक

प्रश्न 7. भारत निम्नलिखित में से किसका / किनका सदस्य है।

1. एशिया - प्रशान्त आर्थिक सहयोग (एशिया - पेसिफिक इकनॉमिक कोऑपरेशन )
2. दक्षिण - पूर्व एशियाई राष्ट्रों का संगठन (एसोसिएशन ऑफ साउथ - ईस्ट एशियन नेशन्स )
3. पूर्वी एशिया शिखर सम्मेलन (ईस्ट एशिया समिट )

नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।

(a) केवल 1 और 2
(b) केवल 3
(c) 1, 2 और 3
(d) भारत इनमें से किसी का सदस्य नहीं है

प्रश्न 8. भारत में इस्पात उत्पादन उद्योग को निम्नलिखित में से किसके आयात की अपेक्षा होती है ?

(a) शोरा
(b) शैल फ़ॉस्फ़ेट (रॉक फ़ॉस्फ़ेट )
(c) कोककारी (कोकिंग ) कोयला
(d) उपर्युक्त सभी

प्रश्न 9. भारत के संविधान में पाँचवी अनुसूची और छठी अनुसूची के उपबन्ध निम्नलिखित में से किसलिए किए गए हैं ?

(a) अनुसूचित जनजातियों के हितो के संरक्षण के लिए
(b) राज्यों के बीच सीमाओं के निर्धारण के लिए
(c) पंचायतों की शक्तियों, प्राधिकारों और उत्तरदायित्वों के निर्धारण के लिए
(d) सभी सीमावती राज्यों के हितों के संरक्षण के लिए

प्रश्न 10. संघ की सरकार (यूनियन गवर्नमेंट)के सन्दर्भ में , निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

1. राजस्व विभाग, संसद में प्रस्तुत किए जाने वाले केन्द्रीय बजट को तैयार करने के लिए उत्तरदायी हैं।
2. भारत की संसद के प्राधिकरण (ऑथराइजेशन) के बिना कोई धन भारत की संचित निधि से निकाला नहीं जा सकता।
3. लोक लेखा से किए जाने वाले सभी संवितरणों (डिस्बर्समेन्ट्स) के लिए भी भारत की संसद के प्राधिकरण की आवश्यकता होती हैं।

उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन - सा /से सही है/ हैं।

(a) केवल 1 और 2
(b) केवल 2 और 3
(c) केवल 2
(d) 1, 2 और 3

UPSC PRE परीक्षा - G.S. Papers (HINDI Medium PDF)

UPSC सामान्य अध्ययन (GS) प्रारंभिक परीक्षा (Pre) पेपर-1 स्टडी किट

(E-Book) KURUKSHETRA MAGAZINE (कुरुक्षेत्र मैगजीन) PDF - FEBRUARY (फ़रवरी) 2024 (हिंदी HINDI)

 (E-Book) KURUKSHETRA MAGAZINE (कुरुक्षेत्र मैगजीन) PDF - FEBRUARY (फ़रवरी) 2024 (हिंदी HINDI)

  • Medium: Hindi (हिंदी)
  • Topic of the Month : ग्रामीण भारत को पुनर्परिभाषित करते स्टार्टअप्स

  • E-BOOK NAME : KURUKSHETRA MAGAZINE PDF - FEBRUARY (फ़रवरी) 

  • Total Pages: 48
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​CONTENTS : 

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(E-Book) KURUKSHETRA MAGAZINE PDF - FEBRUARY 2024

 (E-Book) KURUKSHETRA MAGAZINET PDF - FEBRUARY 2024

  • Medium: ENGLISH

  • TOPIC OF THE MONTH:Food Storage Infrastructure

  • E-BOOK NAME : KURUKSHETRA MAGAZINE PDF - FEBRUARY 2024

  • Total Pages: 50

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(E-Book) YOJANA MAGAZINE (योजना मैगजीन) PDF - FEBRUARY (फरवरी) 2024 (हिंदी HINDI)

 (E-Book) YOJANA MAGAZINE (योजना मैगजीन) PDF - FEBRUARY (फरवरी) 2024 (हिंदी HINDI)

  • Medium: Hindi (हिंदी)
  • Topic of the Month : आर्टिफीसियल इंटेलिजेंस 

    E-BOOK NAME : YOJANA MAGAZINE PDF - FEBRUARY (फरवरी) 2024

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  • Medium: ENGLISH
  • E-BOOK NAME : YOJANA MAGAZINE PDF -FEBUARY 2024
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(Paper) UPSC: Civil Service Prelims 2011 CSAT (Paper -2)

UPSC: Civil Service Prelims 2011

CSAT
(Paper-II)

  • Time Allowed: Two Hours
  • Maximum Marks: 200

PAGE - 1

 

Directions for the following 4 (four) items :

Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.

Passage:

A country under foreign domination seeks escape from the present in dreams of a vanished age, and finds consolation in visions of past greatness. That is a foolish and dangerous pastime in which many of us indulge. An equally questionable practice for us in India is to imagine that we are still spiritually great though we have come down in the world in other respects. Spiritual or any other greatness cannot be founded on lack of freedom and opportunity, or on starvation and misery. Many western writers have encouraged that notion that Indians are other-worldly. I suppose the poor and unfortunate in every country become to some extent other-worldly, unless they become revolutionaries, for this world is evidently not meant for them. So also subject peoples.

As a man grows to maturity he is not entirely engrossed in, or satisfied with, the external objective world. He seeks also some inner meaning, some psychological and physical satisfactions. So also with peoples and civilizations as they mature and grow adult. Every civilization and every people exhibit these parallel streams of an external life and an internal life. Where they meet or keep close to each other, there is an equilibrium and stability. When they diverge conflict arises and the crises that torture the mind and spirit.

1. The passage mentions that "this world is evidently not meant for them". It refers to people who
1. seek freedom from foreign domination.
2. live in starvation and misery.
3. become revolutionaries.

1. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
Ans. (a)
Sol: People who turn revolutionary are not ‘other wordly’ unless word shows the contradiction, hence 1
& 2.

2. Consider the following assumptions :
1. A country under foreign domination cannot indulge in spiritual pursuit.
2. Poverty is an impediment in the spiritual pursuit.
3. Subject peoples may become other-worldly.
With reference to the passage, which of the above assumptions is/are valid ?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
Ans. (c)
Sol: For achieving anything great one has to be free of worries of basic needs. Secondly he/she should
be mentally as well as physically free. Hence 2 & 3.

 

3. The passage thematically centres on(a) the state of mind of oppressed people
(b) starvation and misery
(c) the growth of civilization
(d) body, mind and spirit of people in general
Ans. (a)
Sol: The passage revolves around the condition as they cannot dream of freedom or aspire for any kind
of opportunity. Starvation & misery come under that only. C & D are irrelevant.

 

4. According to the passage, the torture of the mind and spirit is caused
(a) by the impact of foreign domination.
(b) by the desire to escape from foreign domination and find consolation in visions of past greatness.
(c) due to lack of equilibrium between an external life and an internal life.
(d) due to one's inability to be either revolutionary or other
Ans. (c)

Sol.: The conflict between two arises when there is no balanceDirections for the following 3 (three) items:
Read the passage given below, study the graph that follows and answer the three items given below the figure. During a party, a person was exposed to contaminated water. A few days later, he developed fever and loose motions. He suffered for some days before going to a doctor for treatment. On starting the treatment, he soon became better and recovered completely a few days later. The following graph shows different phases of the person's disease condition as regions A, B, C, D and E of the curve.

5. Which region/regions of the curve correspond/corresponds to
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) B and C
(d) No part of the curve indicates the incubation phase
Ans. (a)

Sol: As incubation period is defined as the time from the infection enters the body to the time symptoms are manifested. So the answer has to be A.

6. Which region of the curve indicates that the person began showing the symptoms of infection ?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Ans. (b)

Sol: Since the region B is clearly indicating the time when the symptoms are developing in the body, the answer has to be B. other-worldly. – the concluding lines.

7. Which region of the curve indicates that the treatment yielded effective relief ?
(a) C
(b) D
(c) E
(d) The curve does not indicate the treatment
Ans. (c)

Sol: As the question talks about effective relief only the region E can denote it. So the answer is C.

UPSC IAS (Pre.) Exam 2024 Notification Released (Last Date: 05.03.2024)

IAS EXAM

UPSC IAS (Pre.) Exam 2024 Notification Released

1. CANDIDATES TO ENSURE THEIR ELIGIBILITY FOR THE EXAMINATION:

All candidates (male/female/transgender) are requested to carefully read the Rules of Civil Services Examination notified by the Government (Department of Personnel and Training) and this Notice of Examination derived from these Rules. The Candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfill all eligibility conditions for admission to examination. Their admission to all the stages of the examination will be purely provisional subject to satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. Mere issue of e-Admit Card to the candidate will not imply that his/her candidature has been finally cleared by the Commission. The Commission takes up verification of eligibility conditions with reference to original documents only after the candidate has qualified for Interview/Personality Test. 

2. HOW TO APPLY:

Candidates are required to apply online by using the website upsconline.nic.in. It is essential for the applicant to register himself/herself first at One Time Registration (OTR) platform, available on the Commission’s website, and then proceed for filling up the online application for the examination. OTR has to be registered only once in life time. This can be done anytime throughout the year. If the candidate is already registered, he/she can proceed straightway for filling up the online application for the examination. 

3. LAST DATE FOR RECEIPT OF APPLICATIONS :

The online Applications can be filled up to 05th March, 2024 till 6:00 PM. The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card three weeks before the commencement of the examination. The e-Admit Card will be made available in the UPSC website [ https://upsconline.nic.in ] for downloading by candidates. No Admit Card will be sent by post. 

4. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS:

Candidates should note that there will be penalty (negative marking) for wrong answers marked by a candidate in the Objective Type Question Papers.

5. FACILITATION COUNTER FOR GUIDANCE OF CANDIDATES:

In case of any guidance/information/clarification regarding their applications, candidature etc. candidates can contact UPSC’s Facilitation Counter near gate ‘C’ of its campus in person or over Telephone No. 011-23385271/011-23381125/011-23098543 on working days between 10.00 hrs and 17.00 hrs.

F.No. 1/3/2023-E.I(B) : Preliminary Examination of the Civil Services Examination for recruitment to the Services and Posts mentioned below will be held by the Union Public Service Commission on 26h May, 2024 in accordance with the Rules published by the Department of Personnel & Training in the Gazette of India Extraordinary dated 14th February, 2024. All candidates must carefully read the Civil Services Examination2024 Rules together with all the Appendices along with the Annexures thereof and this Examination Notice derived from the CSE Rules-2024 in entirety for gaining awareness of the current Rules and Regulations as changes may have been incorporated since the previous Examination Rules. 

(i) Indian Administrative Service
(ii) Indian Foreign Service
(iii) Indian Police Service
(iv) Indian Audit and Accounts Service, Group ‘A’
(v) Indian Civil Accounts Service, Group ‘A’
(vi) Indian Corporate Law Service, Group ‘A’
(vii) Indian Defence Accounts Service, Group ‘A’
(viii) Indian Defence Estates Service, Group ‘A’
(ix) Indian Information Service, Group ‘A’
(x) Indian Postal Service, Group ‘A’
(xi) Indian P&T Accounts and Finance Service, Group ‘A’
(xii) Indian Railway Protection Force Service, Group ‘A’
(xiii) Indian Revenue Service (Customs & Indirect Taxes) Group ‘A’
(xiv) Indian Revenue Service (Income Tax) Group ‘A’
(xv) Indian Trade Service, Group ‘A’ (Grade III)
(xvi) Indian Railway Management Service, Group ‘A’
(xvii) Armed Forces Headquarters Civil Service, Group ‘B’ (Section Officer’s Grade)
(xviii) Delhi, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli Civil Service (DANICS), Group ‘B’
(xix) Delhi, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli Police Service (DANIPS), Group ‘B’
(xx) Pondicherry Civil Service (PONDICS), Group ‘B’
(xxi) Pondicherry Police Service (PONDIPS), Group ‘B’ 

Click Here to Download UPSC Official Notification PDF

The number of vacancies to be filled through the examination is expected to be approximately 1056 which include 40 vacancies reserved for Persons with Benchmark Disability Category, i.e. 06 Vacancies for candidates of (a) blindness and low vision; 12 Vacancies for (b) deaf and hard of hearing; 09 Vacancies for (c) locomotor disability including cerebral palsy, leprosy cured, dwarfism, acid attack victims and muscular dystrophy; and 13 Vacancies for (e) multiple disabilities from amongst persons under clauses (a) to (c) including deaf-blindness. The final number of vacancies may undergo change after getting firm number of vacancies from Cadre Controlling Authorities. Reservation will be made for candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes. Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes, the Economically Weaker Sections and Persons with Benchmark Disability in respect of vacancies as may be fixed by the Government. 

As per the decision taken by the Government for increasing the access of unemployed to job opportunities, the Commission will publicly disclose the scores of the candidates (obtained in the Written Examination and Interview/Personality Test) through the public portals. The disclosure will be made in respect of only those willing candidates who will appear in the Interview/Personality Test for the Civil Service Examination and are not finally recommended for appointment. The information shared through this disclosure scheme about the non-recommended candidates may be used by other public and private recruitment agencies to appoint suitable candidates from the information made available in the public portal. 

Candidates will be required to give their options at the time of Interview/Personality Test, while downloading the e-Summon Letter from the Commission’s website for the interview. A candidate may opt out of the scheme also and in that case his/her details will not be published by the Commission. Besides sharing of the information of the non-recommended willing candidates of this examination, the Commission will not assume any responsibility or liability for the method and manner in which information related to such candidates is utilized by public/private organizations. 

3. Eligibility Conditions: (I) Nationality

  1. For the Indian Administrative Service, the Indian Foreign Service and the Indian Police Service, a candidate must be a citizen of India.

  2. For other services, a candidate must be either:-

  • a citizen of India, or

  • a subject of Nepal, or

  • a subject of Bhutan, or

  • a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before 1st January, 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India, or

  • a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India. Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (b), (c), (d) and (e) shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.

A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary, may be admitted to the examination but the offer of appointment may be given only after the necessary eligibility certificate has been issued to him/her by the Government of India.

(II) Age Limits:

1.A candidate must have attained the age of 21 years and must not have attained the age of 32 years on the 1st of August, 2024 i.e., the candidate must have been born not earlier than 2nd August, 1992 and not later than 1st August, 2003.

(b) The upper age-limit prescribed above will be relaxable:
(i) up to a maximum of five years if a candidate belongs to a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled Tribe;
(ii) up to a maximum of three years in the case of candidates belonging to Other Backward Classes who are eligible to avail of reservation applicable to such candidates;
(iii) up to a maximum of three years in the case of Defence Services Personnel, disabled in operations during hostilities with any foreign country or in a disturbed area and released as a consequence thereof;
(iv) up to a maximum of five years in the case of ex-servicemen including Commissioned Officers and ECOs/SSCOs who have rendered at least five years Military Service as on 1st August, 2020 and have been released;
(a) on completion of assignment (including those whose assignment is due to be completed within one year from 1st August, 2020 otherwise than by way of dismissal or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency; or
(b) on account of physical disability attributable to Military Service; or
(c) on invalidment.
(v) up to a maximum of five years in the case of ECOs/SSCOs who have completed an initial period of assignment of five years of Military Service as on 1st August, 2020 and whose assignment has been extended beyond five years and in whose case the Ministry of Defence issues a certificate that they can apply for civil employment and that they will be released on three months’ notice on selection from the date of receipt of offer of appointment. 
(vi) up to a maximum of 10 years in the case of (a) blindness and low vision; (b) deaf and hard of hearing; (c) locomotor disability including cerebral palsy, leprosy cured, dwarfism, acid attack victims and muscular dystrophy; (d) autism, intellectual disability, specific learning disability and mental illness; and (e) multiple disabilities from amongst persons under clauses (a) to (d) including deaf-blindness. 

(III) Minimum Educational Qualifications :

A candidate must hold a Graduate degree of any of the Universities incorporated by an Act of the central or State Legislature in India or other educational institutions established by an Act of Parliament or declared to be deemed as a University under Section 3 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956 or possess an equivalent qualification.

Note I:—Candidates who have appeared at an examination the passing of which would render them educationally qualified for the Commission’s examination but have not been informed of the result as also the candidates who intend to appear at such a qualifying examination will also be eligible for admission to the Preliminary Examination. All candidates who are declared qualified by the Commission for taking the Civil Services (Main) Examination will be required to produce proof of passing the requisite examination along with their application (i.e. Detailed Application Form-I) for the Main Examination, failing which
such candidates will not be admitted to the Main Examination. Such proof of passing the requisite examination should be dated earlier than the due date (closing date) of Detailed Application Form-I of the Civil Services (Main) Examination.

Note II: In exceptional cases the Union Public Service Commission may treat a candidate who does not have any of the foregoing qualifications as a qualified candidate provided that he/she has passed examination conducted by the other Institutions, the standard of which in the opinion of the Commission justifies his/her admission to the examination.

Note III: Candidates possessing professional and technical qualifications which are recognised by the Government as equivalent to professional and technical degree would also be eligible for admission to the examination.

Note IV: Candidates who have passed the final professional M.B.B.S. or any other Medical Examination but have not completed their internship by the time of submission of their applications for the Civil Services (Main) Examination, will be provisionally admitted to the Examination provided they submit along with their application a copy of certificate from the concerned authority of the University/Institution that they had passed the requisite final professional medical examination. In such cases, the candidates will be required to produce at the time of their interview original Degree or a certificate from the concerned competent authority of the University/Institution that they had completed all requirements (including completion of internship) for the award of the Degree 

4. FEE:

Candidates (Except Female/SC/ST/Persons with Benchmark Disability Candidates who are exempted from payment of fee) are required to pay fee of Rs. 100/- (Rupees One Hundred only) either by remitting the money in any Branch of State Bank of India by cash or by using Net Banking facility of any bank or by using Visa/Master/RuPay/Credit/Debit Card/UPI Payment.  

Applicants who opt for "Pay by Cash" mode should print the system generated Pay-in-slip during part II registration and deposit the fee at the counter of SBI Branch on the next working day only. "Pay by Cash” mode will be deactivated at 11.59 P.M. of 4th March, 2024 i.e. one day before the closing date; however applicants, who have generated their Pay-in- Slip before it is deactivated, may pay at the counter of SBI Branch during banking hours on the closing date. Such applicants who are unable to pay by cash on the closing date i.e. during banking hours at SBI Branch, for reasons whatsoever, even if holding valid pay-inslip will have no other offline option but to opt for available online Debit/Credit Card/UPI Payment or Internet Banking payment mode on the closing date i.e. till 06:00 P.M. of 5th March, 2024. 

NB: Notwithstanding, the aforesaid provision for fee exemption, a candidate of Persons with Benchmark Disability will be considered to be eligible for appointment only if the candidate (after such physical examination as the Government or the Appointing Authority, as the case may be, may prescribe) is found to satisfy the requirements of physical and medical standards for the concerned Services/Posts to be allocated to candidates of Persons with Benchmark Disability by the Government.

Note I: Applications without the prescribed Fee (unless remission of Fee is claimed) shall be summarily rejected.

Note II: Fee once paid shall not be refunded under any circumstances nor can the fee be held in reserve for any other examination or selection.

Note III: If any candidate who took the Civil Services Examination held in 20221 wishes to apply for admission to this examination, he/she must submit his/her application without waiting for the results or an offer of appointment.

Note IV: Candidates admitted to the Main Examination will be required to pay a further fee of Rs. 200/-(Rupees Two hundreds only).

Online Coaching for UPSC, IAS PRELIMS Exam

Printed Study Material IAS (UPSC) General Studies PRE Cum MAINS

(e-Admit Card) UPSC: Combined Geo-Scientist and Geologist Examination 2016

(e-Admit Card) UPSC: Combined Geo-Scientist and Geologist Examination 2016

Exam Name: Combined Geo-Scientist and Geologist Examination 2016

Year: 2016

Admit Card Issue Date: 13-04-2016

Admit Card Download End Date: 15-05-2016

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